BioSci 101 I-01-02 Quiz 1

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis (b) a theory (c) a set of rules for forming and testing hypotheses (d) model (e) an informed guess.

2. A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature works (b) an experiment (c) a statement about what makes a good control group (d) a statement about what makes a good experimental group (e) an ultimate question.

3. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must (a) be true (b) address a question about nature (c) be testable (= disprovable) (d) make some prediction about the answer to an ultimate question (e) all of these.

4. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero (b) must be zero (c) could be zero or some other value (d) must not be zero (e) none of these answers is correct.

5. General ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on these ideas (b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas (c) ask ultimate questions based on such ideas (d) commonly fail to reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

6. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then carefully recorded those heights, you would have (a) performed an experiment (b) taken a sample of the human population (c) tested a hypothesis (d) constructed a frequency distribution (e) all of these.

7. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then did the same for the 11:30 Bios 101 class, you would have the data to (a) test a hypothesis (b) answer an ultimate question (c) answer a proximal question (d) demonstrate an emergent property (e) all of these.

8. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) none of these.

9. If you measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable? (a) height (b) numbers of people of a particular height (c) number of people in the room (d) mean height (e) any of these.

10. Reductionists approach scientific problems by (a) constructing a theory (b) looking for emergent properties (c) looking for answers to ultimate questions (d) breaking the problem down into smaller ones (e) designing experiments without a control group.

11. Which of the following would biologists consider a property that emerges from a particular organization of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and many other chemical elements? (a) a cell (b) a human being (c) art and literature (d) all of these (e) none of these.

12. Which of the following processes would you expect to be characteristic of all campus plants? (a) an evolutionary history (b) ontogeny or maturation (c) metabolism (d) some kind of a response to their immediate environment (e) all of these.

13. What do you know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They came from pre-existing cells. (b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions. (c) They carry out dehydration synthesis. (d) They are eukaryotic. (e) all of these.

14. What do you know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three favorite campus plants? (a) They form peptide bonds. (b) They are prokaryotes. (c) They came from pre-existing bacteria. (d) They contain C, N, H, and O. (e) all of these.

15. Prokaryotic cells lack (a) DNA (b) C, H, and O (c) carbon skeletons (d) organelles surrounded by membranes (e) mechanisms for reproduction.

16. Eukaryotic cells possess or construct (a) carbon skeletons (b) organelles surrounded by membranes (c) DNA (d) C, H, and O (e) all of these.

17. Ethanol and acetic acid (a) are both polymers (b) have properties based on their molecular structure (c) are macromolecules (d) all of these (e) none of these.

18. Glucose (a) is a carbohydrate (b) is a polymer (c) contains relatively large amounts of nitrogen (d) has the same properties as CO₂ and H₂O (e) none of these.

19. Glycogen and cellulose (a) contain many amino acids (b) differ in the way their glucose units are linked together (c) perform similar functions for humans (d) are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds (e) all of these.

20. Hydrolysis of starch or glycogen yields (a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (c) fatty acids (d) glucose (e) any of these.

21. Which of the following would be made by the process of dehydration synthesis? (a) amino acids (b) polypeptides (c) fatty acids (d) glycerol (e) glucose.

22. Which of the following would be broken down by the process of hydrolysis? (a) glycogen (b) starch (c) triglycerides (d) enzymes (e) all of these.

23. Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis? (a) glycerol and fatty acids (b) glycogen (c) glucose (d) nucleic acids (e) polypeptides.

24. Unsaturated fatty acids (a) have double bonds between their carbon atoms (b) have nitrogen atoms in place of their amine groups (c) have amine groups instead of carboxyl groups (d) are linked to nucleotides instead of glycerol (e) are produced by dehydration synthesis.

25. Peptide bonds are formed between (a) carboxyl and amine groups (b) nucleotides (c) nucleic acids (d) glycerol and fatty acids (e) glucose molecules in cellulose.

26. Glycogen and cellulose differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

27. Glycogen and starch differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

28. Starch and cellulose differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems (b) the manner in which their molecules branch (c) the way their monomers are linked together (d) all of these (e) none of these.

29. The primary structure of a polypeptide is its (a) number of fatty acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) sequence of nucleotides.

30. The quaternary structure of a protein is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

31. The secondary structure of a polypeptide is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

32. If you read the words “partially hydrogenated vegetable oils” on a junk food label, what do those words indicate? (a) numerous peptide bonds (b) double bonds between fatty acid carbons (c) high cellulose content (d) low glycerol content (e) none of these.

33. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

34. What would be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) nucleic acids (b) nucleotides (c) polypeptides (d) polysaccharides (e) none of these.

35. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

36. Nucleotides contain (a) nitrogen atoms (b) five carbon sugars (c) carbohydrates (d) phosphate groups (e) all of these.

37. The information contained in nucleic acids is to be found in (a) the sequence of amino acids (b) the sequence of nucleotides (c) the tertiary and quarternary structures (d) the manner in which the polymer is twisted (e) all of these.

38. Which of the following represents RNA? (a) AATCTGCCA (b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp (c) GAUCGCUAUAC (d) GCGAATCGCAAT (e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp

39. The Central Dogma states that in a cell, information “flows” from (a) DNA to protein to RNA (b) RNA to protein to DNA (c) protein to RNA to DNA (d) DNA to RNA to protein (e) none of these answers are correct.

40. Lewis Thomas’ analogy of the earth as a cell is based on (a) his reductionist approach to science (b) the large number of polymers in cells (c) the complex organization and many interactions that occur between both parts of earth and parts of cells (d) the fact that both are made primarily of C, H, and O (e) all of these.

41. Thomas’ view of viruses is that they are (a) agents of disease (b) eukaryotic cells (c) mobile genes (d) the original mitochondria (e) prokaryotic cells.

42.Thomas’ claim that we are not single entities is based on (a) the large number of micro-organisms that live in us (b) the fact that mitochondria have their own DNA (c) his view of viruses (d) all of these.

43. According to Thomas, (a) most of our associations are cooperative ones (b) we have real knowledge about most of the microbes of earth (c) soil is pretty much sterile, lacking bacteria (d) all of these.

44. According to Thomas, science achieves a collective power (a) in approximately the same manner as termites (b) from a reductionist approach to problems (c) from an understanding of the way pheromones work (d) from a real knowledge of most microbes (e) from its knowledge of DNA.

45. According to Thomas, pheromones (a) are usually small molecules (b) act in extremely small concentrations (c) function in a wide variety of species (d) may operate in humans as well as in other primates (e) all of these.

A key to this exam will be posted in the glass showcase next to 424 Manter, probably by 12:00, but the grades will not be posted until Friday morning. Please keep your exam.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, clicker pad number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad number. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. A scientific theory is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true (c) an assertion that is demonstrated to be false (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena (e) an assertion that has failed to be falsified.

2. A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true statement (b) a false statement that scientists try to prove true (c) an assertion that can be demonstrated to be false (d) a general explanation for natural phenomena (e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

3. Following a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and experimental groups (a) should be zero (b) must be zero (c) could be zero or some other value (d) must not be zero (e) none of these answers is correct.

4. General ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on these ideas (b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas (c) ask ultimate questions based on such ideas (d) commonly fail to reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

5. Life’s uniformity can be seen in (a) the manner in which polypeptides are assembled (b) the structure of glucose (c) cell surface glycoproteins specific to a certain cell type (d) the characteristics that distinguish one campus plant species from another (e) all of these.

6. A good example of life’s enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen in (a) use of DNA evidence to convict a criminal (b) genetic diversity of the organisms in tropical forests (c) the numbers of different polypeptides found in a cell (d) students at UNL (e) all of these.

7. What should the average person remember about the Permian extinction? (a) It’s when the dinosaurs died out. (b) It’s still going on today. (c) About 90% of the Earth’s biodiversity (genera) evidently became extinct. (d) It was caused by humans. (e) All of these answers are appropriate ones.

8. Which of the following could you easily find in an ecosystem if you had the right techniques and equipment? (a) lysosomes (b) polypeptides (c) pre-predator relationships (d) organelles (e) all of these.

9. In general, what does a “Tree of Life” based on molecular data suggest? (a) Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary relationships can be developed and tested using appropriate technology. (b) There are two major groups of organisms we call “bacteria.” (c) Among what we call “bacteria” there are organisms no more closely related to one another than to humans. (d) Dogs, mushrooms, and campus plants are more closely related to one another than any of them is to bacteria. (e) all of these.

10. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane (e) none of these.

11. Which of the following function primarily to “package” cell products such as proteins? (a) lysosome (b) Golgi apparatus (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast (e) nuclear envelope.

12. Which of the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes? (a) mitochondria (b) cell wall (c) chloroplasts (d) lysosome (e) nuclear envelope.

13. During the process of differentiation, eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new kinds of proteins (b) acquire new functions (c) stop making some kinds of protein (d) become parts of different tissues (e) all of these.

14. In theories of the symbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate symbionts? (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) Golgi apparatus (e) all of these.

15. What is probably the first step in digesting “soy protein isolate”? (a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) dehydration synthesis (d) hydrolysis (e) gene expression.

23. A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol and a fatty acid (b) nucleotides in DNA (c) amino acids in a protein (d) cytochromes and electrons (e) all of these.

24. The primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids (b) the sequence of its nucleotides (c) the folding of its polypeptides (d) the manner in which its nucleotides are paired (e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

1. The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis (b) a theory (c) a set of rules for forming and testing hypotheses (d) model (e) an informed guess.

1. Which of the following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell? (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) fatty acids (c) peptide bonds (d) the citric acid cycle (e) the Calvin cycle.

2. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER from rough ER, you would look for (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts (c) ribosomes (d) Golgi complex (e) centrioles.

3. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for (a) a sausage-shaped body with internal folded membranes (b) a stack of flattened sacs (c) lines of double membranes with dark particles attached to them (d) a group of circular vesicles.

4. Which of the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell? (a) Golgi complex (b) chloroplast (c) nuclear envelope (d) endoplasmic reticulum (e) none of these.

5. Which of the following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal and a plant cell? (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) membrane-bound compartments (d) all of these.

7. If the fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you expect to find transport proteins? (a) mitochondria (b) plasma membrane (c) Golgi apparatus (d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (e) in all of these organelles.

8. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around. (b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in place. (c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer. (d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the membrane.

9. If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a) glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface. (b) to find transport proteins in the membrane. (c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids to be in the lipid bilayer. (d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer. (e) all of these.

18. Glucose (a) is a carbohydrate (b) is a polymer (c) contains relatively large amounts of nitrogen (d) has the same properties as CO₂ and H₂O (e) none of these.

20. Hydrolysis of starch or glycogen yields (a) amino acids (b) nucleotides (c) fatty acids (d) glucose (e) any of these.

30. The quaternary structure of a protein is (a) number of amino acids (b) amino acid sequence (c) manner of coiling or folding (d) number of peptide bonds (e) combination of polypeptide subunits.

33. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

34. What would be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids? (a) nucleic acids (b) nucleotides (c) polypeptides (d) polysaccharides (e) none of these.

35. What would be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes? (a) glycerol (b) amino acids (c) glucose polymers (d) longer nucleic acids (e) nucleotides.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

2. In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER from rough ER, you would look for (a) lysosomes (b) chloroplasts (c) ribosomes (d) Golgi complex (e) centrioles.

5. Which of the following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal and a plant cell? (a) mitochondria (b) nuclear envelope (c) membrane-bound compartments (d) all of these.

6. What might be contained in a membrane-bound compartment? (a) enzymes (b) protein (c) bacteria (d) amino acids and lipids (e) any of these.

10. What is inside a lysosome? (a) glycogen (b) hydrolytic enzymes (c) nucleic acids (d) glucose.

11. What happens during endocytosis? (a) A cell’s environment is taken into the cell. (b) The plasma membrane gets turned inside out. (c) A cellular compartment is formed. (d) all of these.

12. When enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for another. (b) both enzymes produce the same product. (c) the product of one reaction is a substrate for the next. (d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions.

13. A metabolic pathway (a) consists of several linked enzyme reactions. (b) produces carbon skeletons. (c) produces several substrates. (d) may produce a usable form of energy. (e) all of these.

14. The energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the energy required to build the molecules. (b) is present because of the chemical structure of those molecules. (c) can be extracted by means of Calvin cycle pathways. (d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

15. Which of the following components of peanuts and Kellogg’s Nutri-Twists contain potential chemical energy that can be converted into ATP? (a) partially hydrogenated soybean oil. (b) starch. (c) protein. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

16. Assuming your textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist? (a) polypeptides (b) DNA (c) cell membrane (d) polysaccharides (e) all of these.

17. If the answer to #16 is (a), that necessary synthesis would occur by way of (a) anabolic reactions. (b) catabolic reactions. (c) the Calvin cycle. (d) photosynthesis.

18. If the answer to #16 is (c), then the process would likely (a) generate useable ATP. (b) consume existing supplies of ATP. (c) fix CO₂ by way of Calvin cycle reactions. (d) all of these.

19. Assuming textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of the following ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions? (a) tapioca starch (b) cream cheese solids (c) citric acid (d) oats (e) all of these.

20. If the answer to #19 is (a), then the first step in that process would be (a) glycolysis. (b) hydrolysis. (c) oxidation. (d) reduction. (e) electron transfer.

21. If the answer to #19 is (c), the conversion would probably first involve (a) the Calvin cycle. (b) the citric acid cycle. (c) glycolysis. (d) light-dependent reactions. (e) any of these.

22. According to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook and handout, which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in lipids.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in carbohydrates.

(e) all of these.

23. Which of the following ingredients of a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin? (a) niacinamide (b) diglycerides (c) sugar (d) monoglycerides (e) all of these.

24. Which of the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids (b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes (c) CO₂ and reduced hydrogen carriers (d) polypeptides (e) all of these.

25. In the citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced. (b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates. (c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps. (d) peptide bonds are formed. (e) all of these.

26. What role do cytochromes play in cellular respiration? (a) They carry out oxidation-reduction reactions (b) They are an essential part of oxidative phosphorylation. (c) They are essential to ATP synthesis. (d) all of these.

27. Photosynthesis occurs in (a) mitochondria. (b) chloroplasts. (c) lysosomes. (d) endoplasmic reticulum. (e) Golgi apparatus.

28. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) oxygen (b) CO₂ (c) ADP (d) glucose (e) all of these.

29. Which of the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H₂O (b) ATP (c) glucose (d) all of these (e) none of these.

30. Which of the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light reactions? (a) H₂O is split (b) CO₂ is fixed (c) ADP is converted to ATP (d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized (e) all of these.

31. Which of the following processes are carried out by producers but not by primary (1^o)consumers? (a) cellular respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) predation (d) nucleic acid synthesis (e) all of these.

32. Which of the following is carried out by both primary (1^o) and secondary (2^o) consumers? (a) Calvin cycle reactions (b) glycolysis (c) photophosphorylation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

33. If the diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in (a) a dragonfly amino acid. (b) the lipid bilayer in a chloroplast. (c) a ground squirrel gene. (d) atmospheric CO₂. (e) any of these.

34. Lewis Thomas believes that human communications (a) are restricted to signals containing real information. (b) contain vast amounts of “small talk.” (c) eliminate the silence of the natural world. (d) enable us to understand the meaning of natural sounds and place those sounds into a proper context.

35. According to Thomas, which of the following are used, by non-human animals, to make sounds? (a) feet (b) abdomen (c) head (d) teeth (e) all of these.

36. The evidence Thomas cites for purely musical content of bird and whale songs includes the fact that (a) some of these songs match known human compositions. (b) the songs rarely vary in their melody. (c) the songs can be highly variable, even from a single animal. (d) the songs are repeated exactly by different individuals.

37. In the chapter “An Earnest Proposal,” Thomas suggests that (a) we already have enough information about non-human organisms. (b) we should defer military actions until we know everything about a single non-human organism. (c) Myxotricha paradoxa is the best organism to use for biological warfare. (d) the organisms that live on M. paradoxa will help us survive a biological warfare.

38. Myxotricha paradoxa is (a) a producer [in the ecological sense]. (b) a species of insect. (c) a supposedly single-celled animal that lives inside termites. (d) a highly contagious bacteria. (e) none of these.

39. Thomas defines “halfway [medical] technology” as (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) all of these. (e) none of these.

40. Examples of what Thomas considers “genuinely decisive technology” are (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines and antibiotics. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

41. Examples of what Thomas considers “nontechnology” include (a) supportive care for the terminally ill. (b) expensive procedures such as heart transplants. (c) vaccines. (d) the treatment of certain disorders with hormones. (e) all of these.

42. According to Thomas, by far the most expensive medical technology is (a) genuinely decisive technology (b) halfway technology (c) nontechnology.

43. According to Thomas, current treatments for which of the following diseases illustrate best the impact of scientific research and genuinely decisive technology on the field of medicine? (a) heart disease (b) cancer (c) polio and typhoid fever (d) kidney disease [chronic glomerulonephritis] (e) all of these.

44. In the chapter “Vibes,” Thomas focuses on (a) olfactory abilities of animals. (b) sounds of animals. (c) sensory technology. (d) medical technology. (e) military technology.

45. The term “allelochemics” refers to (a) the use of chemicals in warfare. (b) the chemistry of halfway medical technology. (c) the use of chemicals as a means of communication in plants and animals. (d) the use of chemicals to make sounds. (e) development of antibiotics.

46. In the chapter “Ceti,” Thomas suggests that the most effective means of communication with intelligent life on other planets would be (a) chemical signals. (b) music, specifically Bach. (c) a mixture of languages. (d) light of various colors. (e) manned spacecraft.

47. In the chapter “Ceti,” Thomas argues that (a) intelligent life exists on planets around various stars. (b) the best question to ask intelligent extra-terrestrials is “Did you think yourselves unique?” (c) the CETI project is actually biological research being conducted using our most complex physics. (d) intelligent extra-terrestials might already have genuinely decisive medical technology.

48. In his essay “The Long Habit,” Thomas claims that (a) long lives are not necessarily pleasurable in the kind of society we live in. (b) modern medicine does not handle death with as much skill as did doctors in previous times. (c) death on a grand scale does not seem to bother us as much as death of close relatives. (d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05 SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, pad number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. During which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the construction of a polynucleotide? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

2. CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information. Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the base pairing rules? (a) CATTGCGCAAT (b) GTAACGCGTTA (c) CTTAGCGCAAT (d) TTACAAGTTGC (e) any of these.

3. In mitosis, what happens during anaphase? (a) chromosomes separate (b) DNA is synthesized (c) chromosomes undergo synapsis (d) chromosomes become visible (e) the cell enters G2.

4. If a mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur? (a) M (b) G1 (c) S (d) G2 (e) any of these phases.

5. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have half many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (e) enter G2 before they enter S.

6. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair (b) have as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair (d) enter G1 before they enter M.

7. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.

8. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) mutations.

9. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during anaphase II? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) DNA synthesis (e) mutations.

10. What happens during meiosis anaphase II that does not happen during anaphase I? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d) sister chromatids separate (e) none of these

11. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) aa x aa (b) aa x Aa (c) Aa x Aa (d) AA x AA (e) both b and c.

12. Which of the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) both a and d (c) both b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

13. Which of the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) AaBb x AaBb (b) aabb x Aabb (c) AABB x aabb (d) AAbb x AAbb (e) both b and c.

14. Which of the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a) b (b) both a and d (c) both b and c (d) c (e) none of them.

15. Which of the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in offspring? (a) independent assortment (b) crossing over (c) mutation (d) all of these (e) none of these.

NOTE: In the following five questions, “kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

16. How many different kinds of gametes would DdMmRrQq be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

17. Which of the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in the previous question? (a) DMrq (b) DdMmRrQq (c) dmrq (d) dMmQq (e) any of these.

18. How many different kinds of gametes would AaDdTTGg be able to make? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 32.

19. Which of the following could be a gamete made by the individual in the previous question? (a) adTTg (b) ADTG (c) aDdG (d) AdtG (e) any of these.

20. What proportion of the gametes made by the individual in the last two questions would be AdTg? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) you can’t determine this answer from the information given.

21. If the individual referred to in the last five questions is actually the same individual organism, then based only on the information provided in those questions and answers, what do you know about the species to which this individual belongs? (a) It has at least 8 different homologous pairs of chromosomes. (b) The A, D and G loci are linked. (c) It can make at least 128 different kinds of gametes. (d) the T and M loci are linked. (e) all of these.

22. If the individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following processes would produce gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) synapsis (b) non-disjunction (c) crossing over (d) base pairing (e) any of these.

23. If the individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following individuals would you cross it with to determine whether it actually had produced gametes with AdTg or aDTG? (a) aaddttgg (b) AADDTTGG (c) AaDdTTGG (d) any of these (e) you can’t tell from the information given.

For the following few questions, let us consider the traits Mendel used in studying his pea plants. The traits are:

Tall stem = T; dwarf stem = t Axial flower = A; terminal flower = a

Purple flower = P; white flower = p Inflated pod = I; constricted pod = i

Green pod = G; yellow pod = g Round seed = R; wrinkled seed = r

Yellow seed = Y; green seed = y

24. Which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

25. Which of the following crosses will produce the least genetic diversity? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

26. Which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(e) none of these.

27. If he’d known the breeding history of all his plants, which of the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent assortment?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy

(e) any of these.

The next few questions concern the cross: ttAaPpIiggRryy (Plant #1) x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (Plant #2).

28. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #1 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 (e) 128.

29. How many kinds of gametes can Plant #2 make? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 64 (e) 128.

30. Which of the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers to questions #28 and #29? (a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy (b) ttAaPpIiggRryy (c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy (d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy (e) ttaappiiggrryy.

31. Why would you use the plant you chose for the answer to question #30? (a) Offspring phenotype proportions would reflect parent gamete types. (b) Offspring genotype ratios would be 1:2:1. (c) Some of the loci in the parent plants are linked. (d) You could detect crossing over in this particular mating. (e) all of these.

32. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have purple flowers? (a) zero (b)1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

33. If you cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both purple flowers and yellow pods? (a) zero (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 3/4 (e) 3/8.

34. If you allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize (or cross with another genetically equal plant), what fraction of the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 3/4 (e) all of them.

35. Both parents of Plant #1 must have (a) been tall (b) been dwarf (c) had yellow seeds (d) had axial flowers (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

36. At how many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would alleles assort independently from one another? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) all of them (e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information given.

37. How many different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 6 (b) 54 (c) 108 (d) 324 (e) 648.

38. How many different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 (e) 128.

39. If you started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds, which of the following traits would breed true? (a) flower color (b) flower position (c) height (d) seed shape (e) all of these.

40. What is “genetic information”? (a) traits such as flower color (b) nucleotide sequences (c) histone amino acid sequences (d) purines and pyrimidines (e) the probability of obtaining a particular kind of offspring.

41. In humans and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous recessive (b) males can be heterozygous (c) males can express the dominant allele but not the recessive allele (d) both sexes can be heterozygous (e) all of these.

42. What would you expect to find in both adenine and guanine? (a) nitrogen atoms (b) phosphate groups (c) carbohydrates (d) ring structures (e) all of these.

43. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a DNA molecule, which of the following would not be part of a mutant allele produced during S phase of the cell containing such DNA? (a) TAACGCATA (b) TAAGGCATA (c) TAACGGTAT (d) ATTGCGTTT (e) all of these.

44. If ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell’s DNA, which of the following do you know would be part of a sister chromatid made during S phase of mitosis in that cell? (a) ATTGCGTAT (b) TATGGGTTA (c) TAAGCGATA (d) TAACGCTAT (e) any of these.

45. When marine organisms die, their calcium carbonate shells sink to the ocean floor, become covered with sediments, and form (a) granite (b) basalt (c) limestone (d) chitin (e) polynucleotides.

46. Which of the following are plausible events in the carbon cycle? (a) A hippo is bitten by a mosquito. (b) A cell’s mitochondrion is digested in a vacuole fused with a lysosome. (c) Coal is burned by a power plant. (d) Muffins are sold and consumed by an Iraqi child. (d) all of these.

47. What events can occur during the life of a mosquito? (a) If females the insect would seek blood meals. (b) Plasmodium falciparium could mate in its gut. (c) Plasmodium falciparum could undergo meiosis in its gut. (d) Its larvae molt. (e) all of these.

48. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions result from non-disjunction of chromosome #21? (a) Down syndrome (b) Klinefelter syndrome (c) XYY syndrome (d) Woody Guthrie disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

49. In human beings, which of the following genetic conditions is associated with resistance to malaria? (a) Down syndrome (b) sickle cell trait (c) cystic fibrosis (d) Huntington’s disease (e) muscular dystrophy.

50. The statistics on children born with a particular genetic disorder demonstrate that the probability of such children being born varies according to (a) cultural practices of parents (b) historical social behavior of certain groups (b) the child’s sex (d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02 THIRD EXAM

Choose the BEST answer. Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Third Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#. If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .” Answer sheets are due at 11:20. Choose the BEST answer.

1. In the cell cycle, what happens during M? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) the cell differentiates into an embryonic stem cell.

2. In the cell cycle, what happens during S? (a) chromosomes separate and the cell divides (b) DNA is synthesized (c) nothing (d) homologous pairs segregate (e) the chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

3. During prophase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

4. During metaphase (a) chromosomes separate (b) chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell (c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies (d) the cell actually divides into two.

5. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal (b) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (c) have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

6. Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous pair (b) have only one member of each pair of alleles (c) have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all of these (e) none of these.

7. How many chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of chromosomes? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.

8. What happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase? (a) synapsis (b) separation of members of homologous pairs (c) cytokinesis (d)